Questions and Answers

1:1-17 (Week 1)

1. What is the message of Romans? Where would you find it summarized?

Ans: “The righteous shall live by faith.” Rom 1:17.

2. How does Paul develop the message throughout the book?

Ans: He shows the righteousness of God by showing the righteous judgments of God first, in current times, then finally, in the day of Judgment (chaps 1-2). There is no escaping the fact that God is holy and righteous and that He deals with sin justly. Then, Paul shows the need of all mankind to have such righteousness, apart from which no on will see God. There is no one who is righteous by birth or by deed. All are sinners and justly under the condemnation of God (chap. 3). He then shows how man may obtain the righteousness of God - by faith alone (chap 3). Abraham is the OT example of such (chap 4). Then, Paul develops the implications of such righteousness (chaps 5-8). The question of what happened to Israel is then dealth with (chaps 9-11) and the practical application is given in chaps 12-15.

3. What is the meaning of “from faith for faith” (v. 17)? Defend.

Ans: The theme or message is, “the righteous shall live by faith.” This is best explained by the parallel, “from faith to faith” (NKJ), meaning the righteous by faith shall live by faith. Romans is basically about the whole Christian experience which from beginning to end is done by faith alone. It includes both justification and sanctification. One is first justified by faith alone, then is sanctified by faith alone, as his works of obedience necessarily spring from such faith and demonstrate the righteousness by faith alone.

4. In the first two chapters Paul talks a lot about the righteousness of God, particularly as seen in his current righteous judgments on ungodliness (1:18-32) and his future righteous judgments whereby “He will render to each according to his works” (2:6-16). Why is this so important in Paul’s thinking?

Ans: It is important to establish the righteousness of God so that men will know they will have to give an account for their behavior. That coupled with the fact that no one is righteous sets the stage for the showing the only way in which such righteousness can be obtained.

1:18-32 (Week 2)

5. How do unrighteous men “suppress the truth” (1:18)?

Ans: That is explained in verses 21ff. From creation all men have a basic knowledge God. He is all-powerful and holy. They are, therefore, obligated to give him glory and thanksgiving. They suppress such knowledge by refusing to give him thanksgiving and glory and acting as though He does not exist.

6. God reveals himself to man through natural revelation (creation and nature) and special revelation (the Word and his Son). What specifically does nature reveal about God (1:20)? How does such knowledge render man “without excuse” (1:20)?

Ans: Two things - His power and divinity, or power and holiness. The argument is cause-effect. A complex, orderly, and infinite creation implies a sufficient power behind it. Likewise, man’s moral consciousness, moral oughtness, implies a law-giver, one who is holy and just.

7. Is there any such thing as an astute or wise atheist? (Cf. Psa. 14:1) Why or why not?

Ans: No, there is no such thing as an astute or wise atheist. Psalm 14:1, along with Rom 1, says, “the fool has said, there is no god.”

8. What happens when man refuses to honor God and give him thanks? (1:21-23).

Ans: They become futile in their thinking, their foolish hearts are darkened, professing to be wise they become fools, they change the glory of the incorruptible God into an image made like corruptible man.

9. When God removes his grace from man and gives him up (1:24, 26, 28), what happens to him? What does this say about the nature of man?

Ans: God gives them up “in the lusts of their hearts to impurity, to the dishonoring of their bodies among themselves… to dishonorable passions … to a debased mind to do what not ought to be done.”

It says that man left to himself will do nothing but self-destruct.

10. If man responds properly to natural revelation, by giving God honor and thanksgiving, is this enough to save him? Why or why not? What about those who never get an opportunity to hear and believe the gospel (infants who die, imbeciles and morons, as well as those who never get the gospel)?

Ans: Romans 1 says nothing about this per se, except to say that no one is without excuse because of natural revelation. Romans 10:14-17 does give an answer regarding how such are saved. It is through the sending of gospel messengers to preach the gospel. The normal process is: the sending of messengers to preach the gospel, the hearing and believing the gospel, then salvation results. Regarding infants who die, the severely retarded, and those who never hear, we must be content to rest upon the truth of God’s sovereign elective decree. As the Westminster Confession says, “Elect infants, dying in infancy, are regenerated and saved by Christ, through the Spirit … so also are all other elect persons who are incapable of outwardly being called by the ministry of the Word” (X, III).

2:1-3:8 (Week 3)

11. Is verse 1 saying we should not judge others (cf Mt 7:1, 1 Cor 6:1-6)? Or, is it saying we should not judge others while doing the same thing ourselves? Which is it and why?

Ans: It is saying we should not pass judgment on others while doing the same thing ourselves. If we do, then we are passing judgment upon ourselves.

12. How are God’s judgments shown to be righteous (2:2-3)?

Ans: God’s judgments falls upon those who practice such things. It is not what a man says, but what he does that matters.

13. How do men presume upon God’s goodness, forbearance and patience (2:4)?

Ans: by not knowing that God’s goodness, forbearance and patience are designed to lead us to repentance.

14. What causes such presumption?

Ans: Man’s hard and impenitent heart.

15. How are the righteous judgments of God manifest in the day of judgment (2:6)?

Ans: They will be rendered according to each man’s works.

16. In the day of judgment what are the contrasting works of the righteous and unrighteous (2:7)?

Ans: Patience in well-doing versus self-seeking, disobedience to the truth, and works of unrighteousness.

17. What will they receive accordingly (2:7-11)?

Ans: Eternal life, glory and honor versus wrath, fury, tribulation and distress.

18. If the righteous are righteous by faith alone, and not by works (3:28), then how is it that God will “render to each according to his works” (2:6), so that each will receive either eternal life or eternal life accordingly?

Ans: Works of righteousness show the individual to have been justified by faith alone. Likewise, works of unrighteousness will show the individual to be unregenerate, unjustified by faith alone. True faith necessarily issues in works of obedience. A tree is know by its fruit (Mt 7:15-20).

19. Verse 13 says it is not the hearers of the law, but the doers of the law who will be justified in the day of judgment. This verse has caused problems and disagreement. Some say it sounds like a justification by works apart from faith, which Paul clearly denies (3:28). Therefore, they say, this must be a hypothetical, yet impossible justification, a justification obtained by perfect of obedience to the law, which is impossible. But, the context clearly shows that man will be judged according to his works (2:6, 2:17-24), which will show him to be righteous by faith alone. Scripture speaks of the justification of God (Rom 3:4, Psa. 51:4) and of Christ (1 Tim 3:16). It also speaks of three kinds of justification with respect to man: justification by faith alone (Rom 3:28), justification by works and not by faith alone (Js 2:24), and justification by his works in the day of judgment (2:6, 13; Mt 12:37). The basic meaning of justification, as per these usages is: a showing or declaration of righteousness. In light of this, how would you explain Rom 2:13, Rom 3:28 and Js 2:24?

Ans: A man is first shown and declared to be righteous by the existence of faith alone (Rom 3:28, Gen 15:6). Later in life he necessarily is shown to be and declared to be righteous by his works as well (Js 2:24, Gen 22:12). And, in the day of judgment he will be finally shown to be righteous by his works of righteousness, as well.

20. In verses 25-29 what is the point of the discussion regarding circumcision?

Ans: It is not an outward or physical circumcision that matters, but only the inward circumcision of the heart that matters.

21. What advantage, if any, did the Jews have being Jews (3:1-2)?

Ans: The Jews were entrusted with the oracles of God. Oracles were important sayings or messages, especially supernatural ones. Paul uses it for the OT scriptures. The Jews were blessed with the very words of the true God and these words pertained to salvation. But, such blessing did not nullify the importance of obedience. Disobedience nullifies that advantage.

22. Does the existence of evil impugn the righteousness of God? Why or why not (3:3-8)? What is Paul’s argument in these verses?

Ans: No, the righteousness of God is unaffected by the unrighteousness of man, as David acknowledged (3:4, Psa. 51:4). In fact, man’s unrighteousness serves to demonstrate God’s righteousness by contrast, v. 5. Furthermore, to argue that God would be unjust to punish evildoers, if good comes from man’s evil, is absurd. If that were the case, then God could not judge the world. But, God will judge the world.

3:9-20 (Week 4)

23. By the word “then” (v. 9) Paul seems to be drawing his argument to a conclusion. What is his argument and what does it mean?

Ans: Paul’s argument is that both Jews and Gentiles are equally “under sin” (3:9b). This means that they are equally under the condemnation brought on by their sinful acts both in the present day (1:18-32) and in the day of judgment (2:1-29). Jews and Gentiles alike are judged by their works.

24. In verses 11-18 Paul argues from 9 different Old Testament passages. In general, what is he doing and what is his argument?

Ans: The words “as it is written” (3:10) indicate that Paul is simply reinforcing his argument so far by appealing to the OT scriptures. It is always good to have biblical support for what we believe, even if one is writing under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, as was Paul the Apostle. It is instructive to see how the NT writers appealed to the OT scriptures.

His argument is typically synthetic parallelism, that is, the thought developed in the preceding verses is paralleled in 3:10-18 but with a development or building upon the thought of Jews and Gentiles mutually being “under sin.” The development appears to be an amplification of the sin nature of man.

25. Verses 10-18 paint a picture of man in his natural, unregenerate state. If you were to develop a doctrine of the natural man from these verses, what would you say? Can you find at least seven things that could be said about the natural man?

Ans: 1] No one is naturally righteous, 2] no one seeks for God, 3] all without exception (not even one) have turned aside from righteousness, 4] their speech is corrupt, 5] they are hateful and murderous, 6] they have no peace, 7] there is no fear of God in their eyes.

26. Paul says “by the works of the law no human being will be justified in his sight” (3:20). What does this mean and how does it comport with 2:6, 2:13 and Js 2:24?

Ans: In 2:6, 2:13 and Js 2:24 a man is justified by works that issue from faith. In 3:20 Paul is saying by works alone, that is, by works apart from faith no flesh will be justified.

3:21-4:25 (Week 5)

27. To this point, Paul has been discussing the righteousness of God, particularly as it relates to man’s unrighteousness. Man does not have the righteousness which God requires and is in need of it. He now transitions to how that righteousness can be obtained. From verses 21-22 identify three aspects of the righteousness of God in man.

Ans: 1] The righteousness of God in man is apart from obedience to the law (v. 21a), 2] such righteousness is nothing new, for it is witnessed to in the law and the prophets (21b), and 3] it is obtained through faith in Christ Jesus by Jews and Gentiles (22).

28. Charles Hodge, the famous reformed theologian and commentator says “the cardinal doctrine of the Bible is justification by faith.” It is “the turning point in the soul’s history, the saving act.” It “is the reception of Jesus Christ as the propitiation for our sins.” Verses 21-26 may be the most important and comprehensive teaching on this in the epistle and when coupled with the preceding chapters give us a powerful gospel presentation. If you were to follow Paul’s line of thinking in the first 3 chapters, could you give a gospel presentation?

Ans: I would start by talking about the holiness and righteousness of God. That God is holy and righteous is evident from creation itself, so that no one is without excuse and obligated to render him honor, thanksgiving and glory. When men refuse to do that, God gives them up to be consumed by their evil lusts and desires. Furthermore, there is a day of reckoning, a day of judgment, when God will render to each according to what he has done, either eternal life or eternal judgment. The fact is, man is evil by nature and by his actions. No one does good, not one; all are sinners and justly under the condemnation of God.

Yet, because God is righteous and holy, he has provided a way for sinful man to have his sins forgiven and to obtain the righteousness God requires. He sent his Son to be a propitiation for our sins, so that all who believe in him could have their sins forgiven and have the righteousness of Christ reckoned unto them. God’s holiness is seen in judging sin justly in the death of his innocent Son and his grace is evident in the reckoning of righteousness to believers.

29. According to verses 25-26, how did God demonstrate his righteousness?

Ans: In the death of his Son God showed himself to be righteous in dealing with the sin problem, and his declaration of righteousness to those who believe in his Son shows him to be gracious.

30. According to the context, what is the “the law of faith” (v. 27)?

Ans: According to the following verse, “the law of faith” is “one is justified by faith apart from works of the law.”

31. What is the place of the law with regard to faith? (v. 31)

Ans: While a man is justified by faith apart from works of the law, this does not mean the law ceases because of faith. Rather, such faith necessarily issues in works of obedience to the law of God, the moral law. This is what Paul means when he says, “On the contrary, we uphold the law.”

32. How does Paul disprove justification by works apart from faith (4:1-5)?

Ans: His argument is an indirect proof, or proof by contradiction. Assume for the sake of argument that Abraham was justified by works apart from faith (2a). It follows from this that justification would have been a debt to be paid by God and that Abraham would have had something to boast about (2b). But, the OT says Abraham was justified by faith (3a) which is consistent only by grace, not works.

33. Justification by works apart from faith is the great heresy Paul is intent upon refuting. In Paul’s day this false teaching manifested its ugly head within Judaism with the rite of circumcision. Many thought they were righteous and children of God just because they were circumcised as Jews, just like many today erroneously believe in baptismal regeneration. How does Paul refute this one (4:13-25)?

Ans: He appeals to the case of Abraham who believed God and was counted as righteous before he was circumcised.

5:1-21 (Week 6)

34. According to 5:1, peace with God is the first consequence of being justified by faith. What does this mean and what is the difference between “peace with God” here and the “peace of God” in Phil. 4:7?

Ans: Before men are justified by faith alone, they are under God’s just wrath and judgment because of sin. But, justification by faith alone means they have believed in Christ as God’s atoning sacrifice for their sins, and have therefore been forgiven and declared righteous by God. The wrath and hostility of God because of sins has been removed and replaced by peace with God. Peace with God is the necessary consequence of justification by faith. All believers have it. But, the peace of God is the peace which is characteristic of God who is never troubled, nor anxious by events, since he has all things under control. Not all believers have the peace of God, but they can have it, as Paul prescribes in Phil 4:6-7 through prayer with thanksgiving instead of anxiety.

35. The second consequence is joy. Such joy is focused in “the hope of the glory of God” (v. 2). What is the hope of the glory of God?

Ans: It is the hope of one day becoming Christ-like in character (v. 3-4). The believer’s hope is that one day he will not only be freed from the guilt of sin, but also from its power, as he is steadily transformed through trials and difficulties into the glorious image of his blessed Lord.

36. Is such hope efficacious, or does it sometimes fail (5)?

Ans: Such hope does not put us to shame. This is an unequivocal promise and statement of fact.

37. Why is this so? Explain Paul’s argument in verses 5-11.

Ans: Such hope is efficacious because of the love of God poured out in our hearts, and because of the Holy Spirit. God’s love is efficacious, because God’s purposes cannot be thwarted. Neither can the purpose of the Holy Spirit be thwarted. Furthermore, it follows because of the a fortiori argument of verses 6-11 and summed up nicely in verse 10, “for if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God by the death of his Son, much more, now that we are reconciled, shall we be saved by his life.”

38. In verses 12-21 Paul contrasts the paralleling work of the two Adams. If verse 18 summarizes his argument, then what is he saying with regard to the two Adams?

Ans: The point is that as by the sinful act of one man, the first Adam, all men were reckoned to be sinners, so also by the obedient life of the second Adam the many are reckoned to be righteous.

39. What is the meaning of “because all sinned” in verse 12? Is this saying that through the sin of Adam death spread to all men because they all men actually and personally sinned? Or, is it saying that death spread to all men because all men sinned when their representative head Adam sinned? Can you argue your case from the context?

Ans: The following verse argues that sin and death reigned before the law was given, and since sin is not reckoned when there is no law, then there must have been a reckoning of sin from a source outside the individual personally. This verse and this section address original sin.

Original sin means “sinfulness marks everyone from birth, in the form of a heart inclined toward sin, prior to any actual sins; this inner sinfulness is the root and source of all actual sins; it is transmitted to us from Adam, our representative before God” (ESV Reformation study notes, p. 781). The point is that we are not sinners because we sin; rather, we sin because we are sinners, born with a nature enslaved to sin.

40. Some argue for universalism from verse 18. Universalism is the belief that all men without exception will be saved. How would you explain the verse?

Review Questions for weeks 1-5:

1. Is there any such thing as a true atheist? Why or why not?

2. Is there anybody who is inherently good by nature, or who is good on the basis of what they do on their own? Why or why not?

3. Does anybody seek after God, left to his own devices? Why or why not?

4. How is someone made right before God?

5. How will each be judged in the day of judgment? How is this reconciled with the correct answer to #4 above?

6. What is the difference between peace with God (5:1) and the peace of God (Phil 4:7)?

7. What are some of the results of being justified by faith alone?

8. How is the supposed universalism of 5:18 answered?

Rom. 6:1-23 (week 7)

Having focused on justification by faith alone and the benefits that come from such (3:21-5:20), Paul turns to the doctrine of sanctification, the Christian life. In 6:1-8:39 the discussion on sanctification divides into three main parts: the destruction of sin’s dominion (6:1-23), the continuing struggle with sin (7:1-25) and life in the Spirit (8:1-39).

41. The doctrine of justification by faith alone has led some to the erroneous conclusion of antinomianism (literally, “against the law”). If man is made right before God by faith alone and not by obedience to the law, and if where sin abounds, grace does much more abound (5:20), we might as well continue in sin. How does Paul refute such thinking (5:1-4)?

Ans: He argues from the relationship between Christ’s death and resurrection and the believer’s death and resurrection. If Christ’s death and resurrection cannot be separated, and if the believer has been united with Christ in his death (justification by faith alone), as symbolized by baptism, then so also the believer is to be united with Christ in his resurrection. Therefore, he should not continue in sin.

42. While in verses 1-4 Paul argues that believers should not continue in sin, in verse 5 he argues that believers will not continue in sin (sin as they once did, enslaved to and controlled by sin). What is that argument?

Ans: If Christ died and rose again, and if we are united with him in his death, then it follows we will be united with him in his resurrection unto a newness of life. This verse by itself is sufficient to prove that sanctification necessarily follows from justification by faith alone.

43. In v. 6 the King James has “that the body of sin might be destroyed.” This translation has led some erroneously to the conclusion of sinless perfectionism (if the body of sin was destroyed, then believers don‘t sin anymore). A similar error is deduced from the KJ translation of 1 Jn 3:9 (Whosoever is born of God doth not sin). The King James translators did not mean this by their translations. But, the idea of the Greek word is ‘rendered inoperative or powerless,’ as per the modern translations. If so, what is Paul then saying in verse 6?

Ans: The last part of the verse clarifies it: when believers were crucified with Christ the body of sin was rendered powerless so that they would no longer be enslaved to it but are set free to live with him in newness of life (vv. 6-8).

44. What are the two imperatives for believers flowing from this doctrine of necessary sanctification (11-13)?

Ans: Believers are to reckon or consider themselves dead to sin and alive to God (v. 11), and not present their bodies to sin as instruments of unrighteousness, but to God as those who have been brought from death unto life.

45. According to verse 14 believers can be assured that sin will not have dominion over them (literally, will not lord over them so as to control them). Why is this so?

Ans: As the last half of the verse says, since they are not under law but under grace.

46. What does the last half of verse 14 mean, “you are not under law but under grace”?

Ans: Some have interpreted it to mean we are not under the Mosaic law any more, but in Christ are under grace. But, this has serious problems. First, it suggests that believers in the OT were not under grace, that God’s grace did not exist in the OT. Secondly, it ignores the context. The law is the law of sin reigning unto death (5:20-21). This is later referred to as the law of sin and death (8:2). Before God’s grace comes into a man’s life sin reign over him and controls him condemning him to death. But, when God’s grace comes in through justification by faith alone the man passes from the former reign of sin to the reign of grace. Since God’s grace is efficacious, then sin shall no longer reign over the believer.

47. How does Paul answer his question in v. 15, “What then? Are we to sin because we are no longer under law but under grace?”

Ans: He argues that doing so leads to a contradiction; therefore, it should not be done. This is the contradiction. When we present ourselves to anyone as obedient slaves, then we become slaves to the one whom we obey, whether it be sin or righteousness (v. 16). But, we who once were slaves of sin passed from that state to being slaves of righteousness (17). If we are slaves of righteousness then it is contradictory to present ourselves as slaves of sin.

48. In the closing paragraph of chapter 6, develop the contrasting doctrines of slaves of sin versus slaves of righteousness.

Ans:

A. Slaves of sin

1. Have no righteousness in them whatsoever (free in regard to righteousness).

2. The end result of such a state is death, which refers to the second death, eternal damnation.

B. Slaves of righteousness

1. Were once slaves of sin, but were set free to become slaves of righteousness (through faith alone in Christ).

2. The fruit of such is sanctification.

3. The end result is eternal life (cf. Rom 2:6ff).

Rom 7:1-25 (week 8)

Review questions: 1. How would you answer Paul’s question in 6:1? 2. What does 6:14 mean (you are not under law, but under grace)? What is the law in this verse?

In 7:1-8:4 Paul refers to the law 27 times. In this section Paul explains in detail what it means not to be under law but under grace (6:14-15): 1] the law can no longer condemn a believer (7:1-6); 2] it convicts unbelievers and believers of sin (7:7-13); 3] it cannot deliver a believer from sin (7:14-25); and 4] believers who walk in the power of the Spirit can fulfill the law (8:1-4).

49. What is Paul saying in 7:1-6?

Ans: The believer’s not being under the law but under grace is explained by a comparison to marriage. The law is binding upon a man as long as he lives, just as the law of marriage is bound upon a wife, as long as her husband lives. But, just as a wife is set free from the law of marriage once her husband dies, so also those who have identified with Christ in his death (justification by faith alone) are set free from the law of sin and death.

50. The question Paul asks in 7:7 is designed to safeguard against the conclusion that the law is sin. In verses 7 - 11 he answers the question and concludes, “So the law is holy and the commandment is holy and righteous and good” (v. 12). How would you summarize his answer as given in verses 7-11?

Ans: The law is not sin itself, but was given to expose sin (7), to convict me of sin (8-9), and by it to condemn me (10-11). In the parallel passage in Galatians, Paul says God used the law as a guardian to bring us to Christ (Gal 3:24).

51. What does Paul mean by “I was once alive apart from the law” (9)?

Ans: He was alive, not in the sense of having spiritual life (6:11), but in his own estimation. It was not until the law exposed him for what he really was that he began to realize he was not alive. It is like those today who ignore God’s word and regard themselves as being good people.

52. The sudden change in tense from the past tense in verses 7-13 to the present tense in 14-25 suggests Paul is describing himself (and all believers) before they are justified by faith alone, then Paul and all believers after justification in their on-going struggle with sin (15-25). Others, however, see the description in 15-25 as Paul before his conversion (“sold under sin,” v. 14; as having “nothing good“ in him, v. 18; “wretched man“ and “a body of sin“, 24). Identify as many textual arguments as possible for the view that this is Paul as a believer.

Ans: This person desires to obey God’s law and hates his sin (15,19,21). He is humble and recognizes that nothing good dwells in his flesh (18). He sees sin in himself, but not as at all that is there (17,20-22). He serves Christ with his mind (25). None of this can be said of the unsaved. Their attitude is just the opposite (1:18ff, 3:10-20).

53. Paul’s discussion in verses 15-20 is summed up by his statement in v. 20, Now if I do what I do not want, it is no longer I who do it, but sin that dwells in me. Some have misconstrued this as an abdication of personal responsibility for sin. After all, if the individual really does not want to do something bad, but ends up doing it anyhow, then how could he be blamed for it? If this is not what Paul is saying, then what is he saying?

Ans: Calvin says, “This is not the entreaty of a man who is excusing himself, as if he were blameless, like the many triflers who think that they have a just defence with which to cover up their acts of wickedness by ascribing it to the flesh. It is a declaration of the extent of the disagreement between his spiritual affection and his flesh, for believers are brought into obedience to God with such fervency of spirit that they deny their own flesh.“ The key here is his double meaning of “I”. Its first occurrence most assuredly refers to his whole person and being, while the second occurrence refers only to his identity as a new man in Christ. This is why Paul can go on to say in 8:1, There is therefore now no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus. Even though they commit acts of sin, which they do not want to do, and they are no longer under condemnation for that sin, for Christ‘s death paid for it.

Romans 8:1-17 (week 9)

Review question: The theme of Romans is “the righteous shall live by faith,“ 1:17. In chapters 1-8 this is amplified by Paul as meaning, the righteous by faith alone shall live by faith. These are the basic doctrines of justification and sanctification. Chapters 5-8 develop the doctrine of sanctification. What is the struggle every believer experiences and how does Paul answer that struggle as summarized in 7:25?

54. If you compare the translations of 8:1 (ESV versus KJV, NKJV) this is what you get: There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus (ESV) -- There is therefore now no condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus, who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. The reason for the difference is simple. The KJV reflects the translation of late dated manuscripts (Byzantine text family, from 8^th century on), while the ESV and other modern translations reflect the translation of the older (and more reliable) manuscripts. The tendency of scribes in copying scripture was to smooth out difficult readings and to embellish the text by their knowledge of other scriptures. The latter is a case in point here, as scribes evidently imported the wording from the second half of v. 4. What is the difference in meaning between the two translations? Or, is there no difference?

Ans: There is no real difference, because those who are in Christ Jesus are those who do not walk according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit, as per Paul’s earlier discussion that those who are in Christ Jesus are also raised with Him (6:5). But, if one rejects the notion that justification implies sanctification, then the KJV translation of 8:1 could lead one to the erroneous conclusion of non-perseverance of the saints, that is, that a Christian could later incur condemnation and lose his salvation.

55. What does it mean to be “in Christ Jesus”?

Ans: To be “in Christ Jesus” means to be justified by faith alone (Rom 3:28), to have died with Christ to our old life (6:2), to have the righteousness of Christ imputed to us, and to have the assurance of an implied sanctification (Rom 6:5).

56. Why is there now no condemnation for those in Christ Jesus ? Hint: v. 2 introduces the explanation.

Ans: Because the law of the spirit of life sets one free from the law of sin and death.

57. What are the two laws Paul is talking about in verse 2? How do they differ?

Ans: The law of sin and death: the soul that sins shall die, physically and spiritually; the law of the spirit of life: those justified by faith alone are set free from the guilt and power of sin. The two laws are mutually exclusive, that is, they cannot both exist simultaneously. If one exists, then other does not. One passes from the law of sin and death into the law of the spirit of life through justification by faith alone

58. In v. 4 Paul talks about the righteous requirement of the law being fulfilled in believers. Was this done for us when Christ obeyed the law of God perfectly, or is Paul referring to believers actually fulfilling the righteous requirements of the law after they have been justified by faith alone? Explain and defend.

Ans: It is the latter. The whole context (chapters 5-8) is about sanctification. Furthermore, the second half of v. 4 makes sense only if it is viewed as an explanation of 4a. Hence, our fulfilling the righteous requirements of the law is explained as our walking not according to the flesh, but according to the Spirit. This is not to deny that Jesus perfectly obeyed the law of God and that such righteous obedience was imputed to us by faith alone. That is so. But, it is to say that those justified by faith alone, who have received the imputed righteousness of Christ, will demonstrate it by a sanctified change in life, “the thoughts, words, and deeds which the moral law demands … although the believer is no longer in bondage to the moral law‘s condemnation and penalty, the law still reflects the moral character of God and His will for His creatures.” (MacArthur Study Bible notes).

59. In verses 5-8 Paul contrasts those who live according to the flesh and those who live according to the Spirit. If verse 5 gives the reason for each, then what is it? That is, why does one live according to the flesh while the other lives according to the Spirit?

Ans: Those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, while those who live according to the Spirit set their minds on what the Spirit desires. The latter do so, because they have the Spirit of God, while the former do so because they do not have the Spirit of God.

60. The “mind set on the flesh” in verses 5-8 is synonymous with natural man. Identify four characteristics of the natural man from these verses.

Ans: Natural man is spiritually dead (6a), is hostile toward God (7a), does not submit to the law of God (7b), and is not capable of submitting to the law of God (8).

61. From verses 9-11 develop two characteristics of the man who has the Spirit of God.

Ans: he has life because of righteousness (10), he is assured of sanctification (11).

62. Paul starts section 9-17 with the big “if” - if indeed the Spirit of God dwells in you. How can someone know if he has the Spirit of God? (vv. 12-17). Identify four.

Ans: 1) by mortification - the putting to death the deeds of the flesh, 13-14.

2) by addressing God as “Father,” 15.

3) by the subjective assurance given by the Spirit, 16.

3) by our suffering for Christ, 17.

Rom. 8:18-39 (week 10)

Review questions: 1. What is meant by the righteous requirement of the law being fulfilled in us (8:4)? Is this a reference to Christ’s perfect obedience to the law for us, or is it referring to the sanctification process and the practicing of righteousness? 2. What contribution, if any, do verses 7-8 make with regard to the freewill debate?

63. In verses 17-18 Paul transitions from the present sufferings to the future glory of believers. What is the relationship between the two conditions?

Ans.: Suffering with Christ is a sign of the believer’s identification with Christ, just as is his ultimate glorification. As terrible as the first condition is, just the opposite is the latter condition. In this sense the believer can be encouraged to persevere with hope.

64. Paul likens the groaning of all creation and the groaning of believers to that of the groaning associated with childbirth (vv. 22-24). What does this mean? When did the two groanings begin and when do they end?

Ans: The groaning associated with pregnancy pictures the groaning of all of creation associated with the fall of man into sin. Just as the groaning of pregnancy terminates with the joy of birth, so the groaning of the believer and all creation terminates with the joyful return of the Lord.

65. How does the Holy Spirit help us in our praying? (26-27).

Ans: The Spirit of God intercedes for the saints according to the will of God (27), that is, he prays according to the will of God, particularly with respect to the following verses, 28-30.

66. In v. 27 Paul talks about the will of God. What in particular is he thinking about?

Ans: As he goes on to explain, the will of God refers particularly to his working all things together for good for those who love him and are called according to his purpose. This refers to all things in general (Eph 1:11), but particularly to the unbroken chain of verses 29-30.

67. What is the unbroken chain of verses 29-30? To what does this chain refer?

Ans: Whom God foreknows he predestinates; whom he predestines he calls; whom He calls He justifies; whom He justifies He glorifies. It refers to the fact that those whom He starts with He completes; not one is lost or gained.

68. Some have argued from verse 29 that predestination is based on God’s foreknowledge of who would believe in him (conditional election). How would you answer this?

Ans: God’s foreknowledge is not merely knowledge of actual future events; it is knowledge about all things, actual and hypothetical (Mt 11:20-24). It is so, because he has decreed all things that occur (Eph 1:11). So, God knows all future events because he has ordained them, not vice versa. Compare Jer 1:5. Besides, if the foreknowledge were conditional here, then it would require a direct object, like, whom he foreknew would believer in him.

69. In verses 31ff Paul is wrapping up the doctrine of sanctification. He asks a rhetorical question in verse 31, then answers it in v. 32. He uses the a fortiori argumentation, arguing from the greater to the lesser. What is his argument and what effect should it have on us?

Ans: His argument is that if God has done for us the greatest thing he could, that is, offer his Son as a ransom for our sins, then he will surely do the lesser, and give us all subsequent things, including protection, sanctification and glorification. Such reasoning is the basis of tremendous assurance, comfort and hope for the believer.